alec wrote:
> To get the facts straight - yes, England in effect subsidises
> Wales. This was the case before devolution (just as the
> South-East of England subsidises some other parts of England),
> in an amount calculated by the Barnett formula. It has probably
> been the case for about 80 years, one way or another, in the
> case of Wales, ever since the coal industry went into decline
> in the 1920s. In the 19th century, Wales probably made a net
> contribution to the UK economy via coal, steel and so on. How
> long should the accounting period be in this type of
> calculation?
>
> With devolution, the Welsh Assembly was granted a budget by the
> UK government. (Scotland was allowed to raise some tax of its
> own, if it wanted to - an extra 1% of income tax iirc, Wales
> was not.) This particular measure will be paid for out of that
> budget. Yes, English taxpayers pay for part of it, but they
> will pay no more than they would have done without this measure
> on prescription charges, as the Welsh Assembly cannot increase
> its budget. Without the measure, the money would have been
> spent in another way.
>
> If England was 'indepenent' of Wales and Scotland it would
> probably have a permanent Conservative government and could
> kiss goodbye to ever having free prescriptions. Be careful what
> you wish for.

>
Some excellent points, Alec. The last paragraph being far and away why I oppose an English Parliament.
Some 'working-class' people do. As you have implied, a solely English Executive would be the worst thing imaginable for their standard of living.